Hi everyone: I have an AME that wrote the following, which makes no sense to me:
"Under Almaraz/Guzman, too, [sic], I would refer the parties to figure 15-19. Figure 15-19 provides for a 90 percent WPI for a patient who has lost 100 percent flexion of the lumbar spine. I think this is a much more accurate assessment of this particular applicant's condition who has a failed back."
IMHO, that's ludicrous. a 100 percent loss of flexion of the lumbar spine seems to be covered at Table 15-8 and appears to come out to 11% WPI. So what the heck is he talking about? And what exactly does Table 15-19 mean when it says the maximum whole person impairment for total impairment of the lumbar spine is a 90% WPI?? Is that a typo?
Thanks for any help you can provide.